Everydayquiz #80Questions #25minutes
Everydayquiz SSC CGL Quiz On History
1. The use of spinning wheel (Charkha) became common during the
A. 9th Century AD
B. 10th Century AD
C. 12th Century AD
2. The language of discourses of Gautam Buddha was
A. Bhojpuri
B. Magadhi
C. Pali
D. Sanskrit
3. There were widespread risings against the British in the 1820s. Which one of the following did not revolt in the 1820s?
A. Santhals
B. Ahoms
C. Pagal Panthis
D. Ramosi
4. Velu Thampi led a revolt against the British in state of
A. Travancore
B. Baroda
C. Hyderabad
D. Mysore
5. Under the Mountbatten Plan of 1947 the people of ___ were given the right to decide through a plebiscite whether they wished to join Pakistan or India.
A. Assam
B. Punjab
C. Bengal
D. N.W.F.P and the Sylhet district of Assam
6. Three major powers that emerged in southern India in the 7th century AD were
Cheras
Cholas
Chalukyas
Pallavas
Pandyas
A. I, II, V
B. II, III, IV
C. III, IV, V
D. I, II, IV
7. The term 'Yavanapriya' mentioned in ancient Sanskrit texts denoted
A. ivory
B. pepper
C. a fine variety of Indian muslin
D. damsels sent to the Greek court for dance performance
8. The Timariots Governors and the Revenue Contractors, on their part reason in this manner: "Why should the neglected state of this land create uneasiness in our minds and why should we expend our money and time to render it fruitful? We may be deprived of it in a single moment, and our exertions would benefit neither ourselves nor our children." This statement was made by
A. Monserrate
B. Tavernier
C. Manrique
D. Bernier
9. The ultimate ownership of land during the post-Gupta period lay with
A. the cultivator
B. the village community
C. the king
D. the joint family
10. To which of the republic of Buddha belong?
A. Licchavis
B. Sakyas
C. Mallas
D. None of the above
Answers:-
1. (D)
2. (C)
3. (A)
4. (A)
5. (D)
6. (A)
7. (B)
8. (D)
9. (C)
Everydayquiz SSC CGL Indian Polity Quiz
1. The President of India can be removed from his office by the
1) Parliament
2) Chief Justice of India
3) Prime Minister
4) Lok Sabha
1) Can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on the bill
2) Gives assent to the bill
3) Can once again return the bill for further reconsideration
4) Can ask for a referendum on the bill
3) If a Minister loses a no- confidence motion, then
1) Lok Sabha is dissolved
2) Only Prime Minister and that Minister resigns.
3) The whole Council of Ministers resigns
4) The Minister resigns
4) The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto related to the
1) Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill)
2) Dowry Prohibition Bill
3) Hindu Code Bill
4) PEPSU Appropriation Bill
5) The control of the preparation of electoral rolls for parliament and legislature vests with the
1) President
2) Election Commission
3) Cabinet
4) Prime Minister
6) What is contained in the tenth schedule of the constitution?
1) Languages recognised by constitution
2) Forms of oath or affirmation
3) Laws that cannot be challenged in any court of law
4) Provision regarding disqualification on grounds of defection
7) The Election commission holds election for
1) The Parliament, State Legislature and the posts of the president and the Vice-President
2) The parliament, State legislative Assemblies and the State Council
3) The Parliament
4) The parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies
8) For Election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be field by
1) Any citizen of India
2) Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a Constituency
3) Anyone residing in India
4) A resident of the Constituency from which the election to be contested
9) In India, political parties are given recognition by
1) Election Commission
2) Speaker of Lok Sabha
3) President
4) Law Commission
10) The Vice President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of members of
1) Both Houses of Parliament and state legislative
2) Both Houses of Parliament
3) Lok Sabha
4) Rajya Sabha
11) The election Commission does not conduct the elections to the
1) Lok Sabha
2) President's election
3) Rajya Sabha
4) Local Bodies
12) The maximum age prescribed for election as president is
1) No such Limit
2) 62 years
3) 58 years
4) 60 years
13) The power to decide an election petition is vested in the
1) High Court
2) Election Commission
3) Parliament
4) Supreme Court
14) To elect the President of India, which one of the following election procedures is used?
1) System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote
2) Secondary voting system
3) Proportional representation through list system
4) Collective Voting system
15) In which year were the first general election held in India?
1) 1950-51
2) 1948-49
3) 1951-52
4) 1947-48
16) Election to the house of the people and the Legislative Assemblies of States in India are conducted on the basis of
1) Single Transferable vote
2) Propotional Representation
3) Limited sufferage
4) Adult Franchise
17) Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
1) Chief Justice of India
2) President
3) Prime Minister
4) Parliament
18) Which among the following is not a part of the electoral reforms?
1) Installation of electronic voting machines
2) Appoinment of election Commissioner
3) Registration of Political parties
4) Disqualifying the offenders
19) Recognition to a political party is accorded by
1) The Election Commission
2) A Committee of Whips
3) The ministry of parliament Affours
4) The speaker of the Lok Sabha in the case of national Parties and the Speaker of Legislative assemblies in the case of regional parties
20) The Chief Minister of a state in India is not eligible to vote in the Presidential election if
1) He is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature
2) He is a caretaker Chief Minister
3) He himself is a candidate
4) He is an political member
ANSWERS
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1
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1
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11
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4
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2
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2
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12
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1
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3
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3
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13
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2
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4
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1
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14
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1
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5
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2
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15
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3
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6
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4
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16
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4
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7
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1
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17
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2
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8
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2
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18
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1
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9
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1
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19
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1
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10
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2
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20
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1
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Everydayquiz SSC CGL economics Quiz
1. Which of the following policies can be helpful in tackling demand-pull inflation?
(1) Quantitative Easing
(2) Austerity Measures
(3) Fiscal Stimulus
(4) Deficit Financing
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
2. Consider the following statements
(1) Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) is the ratio of number of children enrolled at a given level per 1,000 of population.
(2) GER can take a maximum value of 100.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Arrange the following food grains in the descending order of their contribution to total food grains production in India
(1) Wheat
(2) Rice
(3) Pulses
(4) Coarse Cereals
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1-2-4-3
(b) 1-2-3-4
(c) 2-1-3-4
(d) 2-1-4-3
4. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about employment situation in India in the last five years?
(1) Employment growth has stagnated.
(2) Share of Agriculture in total employment has been decreasing.
(3) Number of employment opportunities in Manufacturing sector has been decreasing.
(4) Female labour force participation has increased.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
5. Consider the following statements:
(1) Effective Rate of Protection is the weighted average of import tariff that a country imposes on its major trading
partners.
(2) While nominal tariff rate is more important for the producers, effective rate of protection is a matter of concern for
the consumers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Whenever imported input is admitted duty free or a lower tariff rate is imposed on input rather than on final commodity.
(a) Effective rate of protection is higher than nominal tariff rate.
(b)Effective rate of protection is lower than nominal tariff rate
(c) Effective rate of protection is the same as nominal tariff rate
(d) Effective rate of protection is higher or lower than nominal tariff rate depending on the difference between tariff on input and final product
7. Import Coverage ratio refers to
(a) Share of imports in total GDP of the country
(b) Share of imports in the total trade of the country
(c) Share of imports subject to tariff barriers
(d) Share of imports subject to non-tariff barriers
8. Which of the following instrument(s) is/ are traded on stock markets?
(1) Share futures
(2) Currency futures
(3) Commodity futures
(4) American Depository Receipts
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
9. Which of the following sector(s) is/are included in Shadow Banking in India?
(1) Chit Funds
(2) Money Market Funds
(3) Gold Loan Companies
(4) Exchange Traded Funds
(5) Non-Banking Financial Companies
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
10. Arrange the following instruments in ascending order of risk associated with them
(1) Debentures
(2) Ordinary Shares
(3) Futures
(4) Mutual Funds
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1-2-3
(b) 1-4-3
(c) 4-1-2-3
(d) 1-4-3-2
Answer
1. ANS B
2. ANS D
3 . ANS D
4. ANS C
5. ANS D
6. ANS A
7. ANS D
8. ANS B
9. ANS D
10.ANS B
1. ANS B
2. ANS D
3 . ANS D
4. ANS C
5. ANS D
6. ANS A
7. ANS D
8. ANS B
9. ANS D
10.ANS B
Everydayquiz SSC CGL GEOGRAPHY QUIZ
1) Which one among the following is not an important factor of climate of an area?
1) Longitude
2) Latitude
3) Altitude
4) Distance from the sea
2) Horse latitudes lie within the atmosphere pressure belts of
1) Equatorial low
2) Polar high
3) Sub-tropical high
3) Which one among the following rivers does not flow into the bay of Bengal?
1) Tapti
2) Mahanadi
3) Godavari
4) Cauvery
4) In the interior of the Earth
1)the temperature rises with increasing depth
2)the temperature falls with increasing depth
3)the pressure falls with increasing depth
4)both temperature and pressure fall with increasing depth
5) The exceptionally high and low tides that occur at the time of the new moon or the full moon when the Sun, the Moon and the earth are approximately aligned is called:
1)Spring
2)Fall
3)Neap
4)Diurnal
6) The latitude is the angular distance of a point on the Earth's surface, north or south, of the Equator as measured from the:
1)centre of the Earth
2)Equator
3)Tropic of Cancer or the Capricorn
4)Poles
7) How many Kilometres are represented by 1 degree of latitude?
1)111 km
2)321 km
3)211 km
4)91 km
8) Wheat is called a Rabi Crop because –
1) It is sown in strong sunlight
2) Cloudy weather is harmful for the crop
3) It is sown in summer
4) It is sown in winter
9) .....is the other name of the Brahmaputra.
1)Tsang Po
2)Son
3)Subansiri
4)Mahananda
10) The Nagarjuna Sagar project is constructed on the river—
1) Kaveri
2) Krishna
3) Godavari
4) Indus
Answers:-
1. 1
2. 3
3. 1
4. 1
5. 1
6. 2
7. 1
8. 4
9. 1
10. 2
1. 1
2. 3
3. 1
4. 1
5. 1
6. 2
7. 1
8. 4
9. 1
10. 2
Everydayquiz SSC CGL Physics Quiz 
1. When we hear a sound, we can identify its source form
(a) wave length of sound
(b) the overtones present in the sound
(c) the intensity of sound
(d) the amplitude of sound
2. Velocity of sound in air
(i) increase with temperature
(ii) decreases with temperature
(iii) increase with pressure
(iv) is independent of pressure
(v) is independent of pressure
(a) only (i) and (ii) are true
(b) only (ii) and (iv) are true
(c) only (i) and (iii) are true
(d) only (i) and (iv) are true
3. Beats occur because of
(a) interference
(b) reflection
(c) refraction
(d) Doppler effect
4. The types of waves produced in a sonometer wire are
(a) transverse progressive
(b) transverse stationary
(c) longitudinal progressive
(d) longitudinal stationary
5. With the increase in temperature, the frequency of the sound from an organ pipe
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remain unchanged
(d) changes erractically
6. Stationary waves of frequency 300 Hz are formed in a medium in which the velocity of sound is 1200 m/s. The distance between a node and the neighbouring anti node is
(a) 1 m
(b) 2 m
(c) 3 m
(d) 4 m
7. In a stationary longitudinal wave, nodes are points of
(a) maximum pressure
(b) minimum pressure
(c) minimum pressure variation
(d) maximum pressure variation
8. When two sound waves are superimposed, beats are produced when they have
(a) different amplitudes and phases
(b) different velocities
(c) different velocities
(d) different frequencies
9. Two waves of the same frequency and intensity superimpose with each other in opposite phases. Then after superposition the
(a) intensity increases to four times
(b) intensity increases to two times
(c) frequency increase to four times
(d) none of the above
10. If the ratio of the amplitudes of two waves is 4 : 3, then the ratio of maximum and minimum intensity is
(a) 16 : 9
(b) 1 : 16
(c) 1 : 49
(d) 49 : 1
Answers Key
1.(b)
2.(d)
3.(a)
4.(b)
5.(b)
6.(a)
7.(d)
8.(d)
9.(d)
10.(d)
(a) wave length of sound
(b) the overtones present in the sound
(c) the intensity of sound
(d) the amplitude of sound
2. Velocity of sound in air
(i) increase with temperature
(ii) decreases with temperature
(iii) increase with pressure
(iv) is independent of pressure
(v) is independent of pressure
(a) only (i) and (ii) are true
(b) only (ii) and (iv) are true
(c) only (i) and (iii) are true
(d) only (i) and (iv) are true
3. Beats occur because of
(a) interference
(b) reflection
(c) refraction
(d) Doppler effect
4. The types of waves produced in a sonometer wire are
(a) transverse progressive
(b) transverse stationary
(c) longitudinal progressive
(d) longitudinal stationary
5. With the increase in temperature, the frequency of the sound from an organ pipe
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remain unchanged
(d) changes erractically
6. Stationary waves of frequency 300 Hz are formed in a medium in which the velocity of sound is 1200 m/s. The distance between a node and the neighbouring anti node is
(a) 1 m
(b) 2 m
(c) 3 m
(d) 4 m
7. In a stationary longitudinal wave, nodes are points of
(a) maximum pressure
(b) minimum pressure
(c) minimum pressure variation
(d) maximum pressure variation
8. When two sound waves are superimposed, beats are produced when they have
(a) different amplitudes and phases
(b) different velocities
(c) different velocities
(d) different frequencies
9. Two waves of the same frequency and intensity superimpose with each other in opposite phases. Then after superposition the
(a) intensity increases to four times
(b) intensity increases to two times
(c) frequency increase to four times
(d) none of the above
10. If the ratio of the amplitudes of two waves is 4 : 3, then the ratio of maximum and minimum intensity is
(a) 16 : 9
(b) 1 : 16
(c) 1 : 49
(d) 49 : 1
Answers Key
1.(b)
2.(d)
3.(a)
4.(b)
5.(b)
6.(a)
7.(d)
8.(d)
9.(d)
10.(d)
Everydayquiz SSC CGL BIOLOGY QUIZ
1.Ozone hole refers to
A.hole in ozone layer
B.decrease in the ozone layer in troposphere
C.decrease in thickness of ozone layer in stratosphere
D.increase in the thickness of ozone layer in troposphere
2.Plants receive their nutrients mainly from
A.chlorophyll
B.atmosphere
C.light
3.Movement of cell against concentration gradient is called
A.osmosis
B.active transport
C.diffusion
D.passive transport
4.Photosynthesis generally takes place in which parts of the plant?
A.Leaf and other chloroplast bearing parts
B.stem and leaf
C.Roots and chloroplast bearing parts
D.Bark and leaf
5.Plants synthesis protein from
A.starch
B.sugar
C.amino acids
D.fatty acids
6.Plants absorb dissolved nitrates from soil and convert them into
A.free nitrogen
B.urea
C.ammonia
D.proteins
7.Plants absorb most part of water needed by them through their
A.embryonic zone
B.growing point
C.root hairs
D.zone of elongation
8.Photo-oxidation is
A.photorespiration
B.photolysis
C.light and oxygen induced breakdown
D.All of the above
9.Most highly intelligent mammals are
A.whales
B.dolphins
C.elephants
D.kangaroos
10.Plant development is influenced by
A.quality of light only
B.quality and quantity of light
C.quality and duration of light
D.quality, quantity and duration of light
ANSWER KEY:
1-(c)
2-(d)
3-(b)
4-(a)
5-(c)
6-(a)
7-(c)
8-(d)
9-(b)
10-(d)
Everydayquiz SSC CGL Chemistry Quiz
1.The chemical name of rat poison is
(1). Zinc oxide
(2). Potassium cyanide
(3). Lead nitrate
(4). Zinc phosphide
(1). Haematite : Copper
(2). Bauxite : Aluminium
(3). Monazite : Thorium
(4). Pitchblende : Uranium
3. Which of the following is used for refrigeration ?
(1). Sulphur dioxide
(2). Chlorine
(3). Freon
(4). Phosphine
4. Which of the following is used denature ethanol?
(1). Methyl alcohol
(2). Propyl alcohol
(3). Phenol
(4). Methane
5. The main constituent of natural gas is
(1). Methane
(2). Ethane
(3). Butane
(4). Propane
6. Among the following ,which is always found in free-state in nature?
(1). Gold
(2). Silver
(3). Sodium
(4). Copper
7. The depletion of Ozone layer is due to
(1). Chloro fluoro carbon
(2). Carbon dioxide
(3). Sulphur dioxide
(4). ethane
8. In vulcanisation process,rubber can be hardened by adding
(1). Nitrogen
(2). Silicon
(3). Sulphur
(4). Alcohol
9. Urea is a
(1). Sodium fertilizer
(2). Phosphatic fertilizer
(3). Nitrogenous fertilizer
(4). Potassium fertilizer
10. Solder is an alloy of
(1). Lead,zinc
(2). Copper,lead
(3). Tin,lead
(4). Sodium,lead
Answer :-
1.4
2.1
3.3
4.1
5.1
6.1
7.1
8.3
9.3
10.3
1.4
2.1
3.3
4.1
5.1
6.1
7.1
8.3
9.3
10.3
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