#everydayquiz
#maths #reasoning #english #computer #spotting Error
#MAths
quiz-2
Directions (Q. 1-5): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
1. 8 10 18 44 124 (?)
(1) 344
(2) 366
(3) 354
(4) 356
(5) None of these
2. 13 25 61 121 205 (?)
(1) 323
(2) 326
(3) 324
(4) 313
(5) None of these
3. 656 352 200 124 86 (?)
(1) 37
(2) 59
(3) 62
(4) 57
(5) None of these
4. 454 472 445 463 436 (?)
(1) 436
(2) 456
(3) 454
(4) 434
(5) None of these
5. 12 18 36 102 360 (?)
(1) 1364
(2) 1386
(3) 1384
(4) 1376
(5) None of these
DIRECTIONS (6-10) - Study the information given and answer the following questions.
6. Between 1995 and 2000, in which year has the av-erage employment per factory shown an increment compared to previous year, but decreased in the next year?
(1) 1996
(2) 1997
(3) 1998
(4) 1999
(5) None of these
7. If in 1996, 20,100 factories had 659 employments on an average, the remaining factories had an average employment of:
(1) 559
(2) 509
(3) 584
(4) 534
(5) None of these
8. The total employment in 1999 is how many times to that in 1996?
(1) 1.45
(2) 1.48
(3) 1.6
(4) 1.42
(5) None of these
9. In which of the following five-year period, number of factories has shown maximum increase?
(1) 1980-85
(2) 1985-90
(3) 1990-95
(4) 1995-00
(5) None of these
10. Among the given period, in how many years has the trend of the average employment per factory not changed with respect to the previous year's change?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Can't be determined
(5) None of these
ANSWERS
6. (4) in 1999, average employment per factory is greater than 1998 and less than 2000.
7. (2), in 1996, for 20100 factories , employees = 13,245,900; average = 609, total employees = 18,361,350. So average for remaining factories = 509.
8. (1) , total employment in 1999= 36240 x 736.
Total employment in 1996 = 609 x 30150,
Ratio = (36240×736)/(30150×609)=1.45
9. (4) From the figure it can be seen that the maximum increase in the number of factories is in 1995-2000.
10. (4) , we do not have year wise data in between 1975- 1980 & similarly between 1980-1985,etc.
Reasoning Quiz
Directions (1-5): In each group of questions below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer—
(1) If only conclusion I follows.
(2) If only conclusion II follows
(3) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
(4) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
(5) If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.
Statements (1-2):
No coconut is a lemon.
All lemons are onions.
All coconuts are groundnuts.
1. Conclusions:
I. Some groundnuts are not onions.
II. All lemons are groundnuts is a possibility.
2. Conclusions:
I. Some lemons which are groundnuts are also a part of onions
II. No onion is coconut.
Statements (3-4):
Some thousands are millions.
All millions are billions.
All trillions are billions.
3. Conclusions:
I. All thousands are trillions is a possibility.
II. No billion is thousand is a possibility.
4. Conclusions:
I. Some trillions are millions is definitely true.
II. At least some trillions are not thousands.
5. Statements :
All refrigerators are televisions.
All juicers are refrigerators.
No television is radio.
Conclusions:
I. Some radios are not juicers.
II. All refrigerators are radios is a possibility.
Statements (6-10):
Some mobiles are calculators.
All calculators are machines.
All equipments are mobiles.
6. Conclusions:
I. No equipment is machine is a possibility.
II. Some machines which are mobiles are also a part of equipments.
7. Conclusions:
I. All equipments are calculators.
II. Some equipments are not calculators.
Directions : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
8. How is ‘never’ written in a code language?
I. ‘never ever go there’ is written as ‘na ja ni ho’ in that code language.
II. ‘go there and come back’ is written as ‘ma ho sa ni da’ in that code language.
9. Among M, P, K, J, T and W, who is lighter than only the heaviest?
I. P is heavier than M and T.
II. W is heavier than P but lighter than J who is not the heaviest.
10. What does ‘S’ mean in a code language?
I. ‘5 $ # 3’ means ‘flowers are really good’.
II. ‘7 # 3 5’ means ‘good flowers are available’.
11. How is P related to J?
I. M is brother of P and T is sister of P.
II. P’s mother is married to J’s husband who has one son and two daughters.
12. How many students are there between Suresh and Mohan in a row of fifty students?
I. Suresh is twelfth from the left end and Mohan is seventeenth from the right end.
II. Suresh is six places away from Jayesh who is twentieth from the left end.
ANSWERS
Solutions (1-7):
For (1-2):
1. (2)
2. (4)
For (3-4):
3. (1)
4. (4)
5. (1):
For (6-7):
6. (1)
7. (4)
Solutions (8-12):
8. (4)
9. (5)
10. (5)
11. (5)
12. (1)
quiz-2
Directions : Read the following passage carefully and answers the questions given below it:
In a SAARC meeting eight delegates A, B C, D, E, F, G, and H of different countries are sitting around a square table facing the centre not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them is belongs to different countries India, Maldives, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Afghanistan, Nepal, Bangladesh and Bhutan.
F sits second to the right of the delegate of Sri Lanka. Bangladesh is an immediate neighbour of delegate of Sri Lanka. Two people sit between the delegate of Bangladesh and B. C and E are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither C nor E is an immediate neighbour of either B or delegate of Sri Lanka. The delegate of Pakistan sits second to the right of D, who is the delegate of Maldives. G and the delegate of India is immediate neighbour of each other. B is not the delegate of India. Only one person sits between C and D. H sits third to left of the delegate of Bhutan. The delegate of Nepal sits second to left of the delegate of Afghanistan.
1. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
(1) E is an immediate neighbour of the delegate of India
(2) E is the delegate of Maldives
(3) The delegate of India is an immediate neighbour of F
(4) The delegate of Bhutan sits between F and delegate of Nepal
(5) Shopkeeper sits second to the right of the teacher
2. H is the delegate of which country?
(1) India
(2) Pakistan
(3) Sri Lanka
(4) Afghanistan
(5) Bhutan
3. What is the position of delegate of Afghanistan with respect to delegate of Bangladesh?
(1) Immediately to the left
(2) Third to the left
(3) Second to the right
(4) Fourth to the left
(5) Second to the left
4. Who sit/s exactly between the delegate of Maldives and C?
(1) H
(2) Delegate of Pakistan
(3) Delegate of Nepal
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) F
5. What is the position of delegate of Pakistan when counted anti-clock wise direction from C?
(1) Immediately to the left
(2) Third to the left
(3) Second to the right
(4) Fourth to the left
(5) None of these
Directions (6-8): Read the following information and answer the given questions.
In the following question, a statement a statement is followed by two Assumption/ Course of Action I and II.
Give your answer as:
(1) If only I follow.
(2) If only II follows.
(3) If either I or II follows.
(4) If neither I nor II follows.
(5) If both I and II follows.
6. Statement: While presenting a stage show in a Saifai (Uttar Pradesh), the famous actor and actress declared that they have a practice of either taking full payment or none for their stage shows.
Assumptions:
I. They took full payment for their recent show.
II. They did not take any money for his recent show.
7. Statement: The Delhi court has directed the government to respond to a PIL alleging that politicians were misusing government’s funds worth crores in the name of sports on advertisement for their publicity.
Course of Action:
I. Government should respond to the PIL and ensure that this type of incident do not occurs in future.
II. Government should identify those politicians and must warn them not to do this again.
8. Statement: ‘We are here to announce that you are appointed as a Content Manager with a probation period of six months and your performance will be reviewed at the end of the period for confirmation’ – A line in an offer letter.
Assumptions:
I. The performance of an individual generally is not known at the time of joining.
II. Generally an individual tries to prove his worth in the probation period.
Directions (9-10): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
(i) A X B means “A is the father of B”
(ii) A + B means “B is the sister of A”
(iii) A – B means “B is the mother of A”
(iv) A ÷B means “A is the brother of B”
9. Which of the following means P is nephew of R?
(I) R x K ÷ P
(II) R – N + P – K
(III) R ÷ K x P + M
(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Only III
(4) Either II or III
(5) None of these
10. If it is given K x P ÷ R + S – Q. then which of the following is true?
(1) R is the brother of P
(2) K is the husband of S
(3) Q is the wife of K
(4) R is the sister of S
(5) None of these
Solutions (1-5)
1. (4)
2. (3)
3. (2)
4. (3)
5. (5)
Solutions (6-8):
6. (3) As given in the condition in the statement, the actor and actress either will take the full payment for his recent show or will not take any money for the same. Hence, either of the assumptions follows.
7. (5) Both Course of Actions follows.
8. (5) The performance of the individual has to be tasted over a span of time as the statement mentions. So I is implicit. The statement mentions that the individual’s worth shall be reviewed (during probation period) before confirmation so II is also implicit.
Solutions (9-10):
9. (5) Either 1 or 4
10. (3) Q is the wife of K
English Quizzes
Passage:
close test
Directions(1-10): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
In economics, the term recession generally describes the reduction of a country’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) for at least two quarters. A recession is ...(1)... by rising unemployment, increase in government borrowing, ...(2)..., of share and stock prices, and falling investment. All of these characteristics have effects on people. Some recessions have been anticipated by stock market declines. The real – estate market also usually ...(3)... before a recession. During an economic decline, high ...(4)... stocks such as financial services, pharmaceuticals and tobacco ...(5)... to hold up better. However, when the economy starts to recover growth, stocks tend to recover faster. There is significant disagreement about how health care and utilities tend to ...(6)...
In 2008, an economic recession was suggested by several important indicators of economic downturn. These ...(7)... high oil prices, which led to ...(8)... high food prices due to a dependence of food production on petroleum, as well as using food crop products such as ethanol and biodiesel as an ...(9)... to petroleum; and global inflation; a substantial credit crisis investment blanks as well ...(10)... as commercial banks in various, and signs of contemporaneous economic downturns in major economics of the world, a global recession.
1.
(1) imagined
(2)depict
(3) shown
(4) visualized
(5) characterized
2.
(1) Increase
(2) variance
(3) more
(4) decrease
(5) abundance
3.
(1) weakens
(2) intiates
(3) awakens
(4) strengthens
(5) volatile
4.
(1) maintained
(2) yield
(3) heavy
(4) result
(5) payment
5.
(1) are
(2) want
(3)tend
(4) yearn
(5) made
6.
(1) distribute
(2) recover
(3) wait
(4) increased
(5) fight
7.
(1) meant
(2) show
(3) numbered
(4) included
(5) encompass
8.
(1) fearful
(2) dangerous
(3) abnormally
(4) healthy
(5) nutritious
9.
(1) alternative
(2) variant
(3) substitute
(4) element
(5) integral
10.
(1) wealthy
(2) costly
(3) stand
(4) created
(5) established
ANSWERS -
1. 5
2. 4
3. 1
4. 2
5. 3
6. 2
7. 4
8. 3
9. 1
10. 5
English Quiz -1
2. 3
3. 3
4. 3
5. 2
6. 2
English Quiz-2
Directions: In question nos. 1-5, some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. If there is no error, give ans (D).
1. Relaxation techniques such as meditation, physical exercises, (A) and listening to soothing music are some of the (B) most effective of the known non-invasive stress buster. (C) No error (D)
2. Salman Rushdie's 'Joseph Anton' is (A)one book by Mr Rushdie I (B) intend to read cover from cover. (C) No error (D)
3. Rakesh had the presence of mind (A) to get out of the way as the bus speeded out (B) of control past them. (C) No error (D)
4. Beginning in 2005, India and China had agreed to (A) identify "guiding principles and parameters" for (B) a political solution to the five-decade-old dispute. (C) No error (D)
5. The chairman and members of the (A) Public Service Commission is appointed (B) by the President or the Governor(C) No error (D.
Answer:
1.C Replace buster with busters.
2.C Replace from with to.
3.B Replace speeded with speed.
4.A Replace beginning with early.
5.B Replace is with are.
6.A
7.C
8.B
9.D
10.A
English Quiz-3
Directions (1to 10): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
Computer Quiz-1
computer Quiz-2
SSC #IBPS #SBI #RBI #NABARD #NICL #NIACL #CAT #NMAT #everydayquiz
#maths #reasoning #english #computer #spotting Error
#MAths
Directions (1-5): Study the following Pie Graph carefully and answer the questions given below.
1. During the process of renovation the family actually incurs miscellaneous expenditure of Rs.20400. The miscellaneous expenditure incurred by the family is what percent of the total estimated cost?
(1) 9.5
(2) 9
(3) 8.5
(4) 10.5
(5) None of these
2. Other than getting the discount of 12% on the estimated cost of furniture and the actual miscellaneous expenditure of Rs. 20,400 instead of the estimated, the family’s estimated cost is correct. What is the total expenditure of the family in renovation of its house (In Rs.)?
(1) 237456
(2) 231852
(3) 239000
(4) 233000
(5) None of these
3. What is the difference in the amount estimated by the family on Interior Decoration and Architect Fees (In Rs.)?
(1) 20000
(2) 19000
(3) 14400
(4) 18000
(5) None of these
4. What is the cost estimated by the family on Painting and Flooring together (In Rs.)?
(1) 73000
(2) 69600
(3) 72000
(4) 69000
(5) None of these
5. The family gets a discount on Furniture and pays 12% less than the estimated cost on Furniture. What is the amount spent on furniture (In Rs.)?
(1) 26400
(2) 29052
(3) 27052
(4) 27456
(5) None of these
Directions (6-10): Study the following table and answer the questions given below.
The following table details the revenue of three major Indian software companies A, B and C and total revenue of all Indian software companies from 2008 to 2012.
Year
|
A
(in crores)
|
B (in crores)
|
C
(in crores)
|
Total
(including all companies)
|
2008
|
587
|
897
|
303
|
1891
|
2009
|
1030
|
1135
|
410
|
2660
|
2010
|
1275
|
1531
|
510
|
3460
|
2011
|
1820
|
2070
|
700
|
4720
|
2012
|
2400
|
2800
|
1025
|
6300
|
6. What is the simple growth rate of the total revenue from 2008 to 2012?
(1) 233%
(2) 258%
(3) 235%
(4) 242%
(5) Cannot be determined
7. Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. The revenue has shown the highest growth rate for company B.
II. If revenues of company C grows at the same rate from 2013 to 2017 as 2008 to 2012, then output in 2017 will be Rs.2100 crore.
III. The ratio of revenues of company A and C in 2010 is 1:4.
(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Only III
(4) Both I and III
(5) None of these
8. If the share of company B’s revenue in the total remains same in 2014 as in 2012; and in 2014, the total output is Rs. 9000 cr, the revenue of company B in 2014 is
(1) Rs.4000 cr
(2) Rs.3000 cr
(3) Rs.2000 cr
(4) Rs.2500 cr
(5) Cannot be determined
9. Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. Revenues of company B grew at a (simple rate of ) 22% per annum from 2008 to 2012.
II. Total revenue of A, B and C grew at (a simple rate of) 15% per annum on an average from 2008 to 2012..
III. Revenues of company A is growing fastest during the period shown above.
(1) Only I
(2) Only III
(3) II and III
(4) Both I and II
(5) None of these
10. What was the total Revenue of software companies other than those mentioned in the table in 2009 in crores?
(1) 85
(2) 75
(3) 109
(4) 65
(5) Cannot be determined
ANSWERS:
1. (3)
Required percentage = 20400/240000 * 100 = 8.5
2. (1)
Estimated mislaneous cost = 8% of 240000 = 19200
Total expenditure of family = 240000 – 19200 + 20400 – 12% of 13% of 240000 = 237456
3. (5)
Required difference = (19-11)% of 240000 = 19200
4. (2)
Requires cost = (15+14)% of 240000 = 69600
5. (4)
Amount spent on furniture = (100-12)% of 13% of 240000 = 27456
6. (1)
Required percentage = {(6300-1891)/1891 * 100} = 233%
7. (5)
Statement I is false as growth rate of system software is lower than that of financial software.
Statement II is false as nothing is mentioned about growth rate from 88 to 89.
Statement III is false as the ratio of financial software to utilities in 1986 is 2.3.
8. (1)
Let the required value be x. Then
2800/6300 = x/9000
X = 4000
9. (2)
Statement I : [{(2800 - 897)/897} * 100]/4 = 53%
Hence statement I is false.
Statement II : [(6225 - 1787)/1787 * 100] /4 = 62%
Hence Statement II is false.
Statement III: As seen from the table financial software is the only category where the figure in 2012 is more
than 4 times that in 2008
Hence statement III is true.
10. (1)
2660 – (1030 + 1135 + 410) = 85 cr.
ANSWERS:
1. (3)
Required percentage = 20400/240000 * 100 = 8.5
2. (1)
Estimated mislaneous cost = 8% of 240000 = 19200
Total expenditure of family = 240000 – 19200 + 20400 – 12% of 13% of 240000 = 237456
3. (5)
Required difference = (19-11)% of 240000 = 19200
4. (2)
Requires cost = (15+14)% of 240000 = 69600
5. (4)
Amount spent on furniture = (100-12)% of 13% of 240000 = 27456
6. (1)
Required percentage = {(6300-1891)/1891 * 100} = 233%
7. (5)
Statement I is false as growth rate of system software is lower than that of financial software.
Statement II is false as nothing is mentioned about growth rate from 88 to 89.
Statement III is false as the ratio of financial software to utilities in 1986 is 2.3.
8. (1)
Let the required value be x. Then
2800/6300 = x/9000
X = 4000
9. (2)
Statement I : [{(2800 - 897)/897} * 100]/4 = 53%
Hence statement I is false.
Statement II : [(6225 - 1787)/1787 * 100] /4 = 62%
Hence Statement II is false.
Statement III: As seen from the table financial software is the only category where the figure in 2012 is more
than 4 times that in 2008
Hence statement III is true.
10. (1)
2660 – (1030 + 1135 + 410) = 85 cr.
quiz-2
Directions (Q. 1-5): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
1. 8 10 18 44 124 (?)
(1) 344
(2) 366
(3) 354
(4) 356
(5) None of these
2. 13 25 61 121 205 (?)
(1) 323
(2) 326
(3) 324
(4) 313
(5) None of these
3. 656 352 200 124 86 (?)
(1) 37
(2) 59
(3) 62
(4) 57
(5) None of these
4. 454 472 445 463 436 (?)
(1) 436
(2) 456
(3) 454
(4) 434
(5) None of these
5. 12 18 36 102 360 (?)
(1) 1364
(2) 1386
(3) 1384
(4) 1376
(5) None of these
DIRECTIONS (6-10) - Study the information given and answer the following questions.
6. Between 1995 and 2000, in which year has the av-erage employment per factory shown an increment compared to previous year, but decreased in the next year?
(1) 1996
(2) 1997
(3) 1998
(4) 1999
(5) None of these
7. If in 1996, 20,100 factories had 659 employments on an average, the remaining factories had an average employment of:
(1) 559
(2) 509
(3) 584
(4) 534
(5) None of these
8. The total employment in 1999 is how many times to that in 1996?
(1) 1.45
(2) 1.48
(3) 1.6
(4) 1.42
(5) None of these
9. In which of the following five-year period, number of factories has shown maximum increase?
(1) 1980-85
(2) 1985-90
(3) 1990-95
(4) 1995-00
(5) None of these
10. Among the given period, in how many years has the trend of the average employment per factory not changed with respect to the previous year's change?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Can't be determined
(5) None of these
ANSWERS
6. (4) in 1999, average employment per factory is greater than 1998 and less than 2000.
7. (2), in 1996, for 20100 factories , employees = 13,245,900; average = 609, total employees = 18,361,350. So average for remaining factories = 509.
8. (1) , total employment in 1999= 36240 x 736.
Total employment in 1996 = 609 x 30150,
Ratio = (36240×736)/(30150×609)=1.45
9. (4) From the figure it can be seen that the maximum increase in the number of factories is in 1995-2000.
10. (4) , we do not have year wise data in between 1975- 1980 & similarly between 1980-1985,etc.
Reasoning Quiz
Directions (1-5): In each group of questions below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer—
(1) If only conclusion I follows.
(2) If only conclusion II follows
(3) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
(4) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
(5) If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.
Statements (1-2):
No coconut is a lemon.
All lemons are onions.
All coconuts are groundnuts.
1. Conclusions:
I. Some groundnuts are not onions.
II. All lemons are groundnuts is a possibility.
2. Conclusions:
I. Some lemons which are groundnuts are also a part of onions
II. No onion is coconut.
Statements (3-4):
Some thousands are millions.
All millions are billions.
All trillions are billions.
3. Conclusions:
I. All thousands are trillions is a possibility.
II. No billion is thousand is a possibility.
4. Conclusions:
I. Some trillions are millions is definitely true.
II. At least some trillions are not thousands.
5. Statements :
All refrigerators are televisions.
All juicers are refrigerators.
No television is radio.
Conclusions:
I. Some radios are not juicers.
II. All refrigerators are radios is a possibility.
Statements (6-10):
Some mobiles are calculators.
All calculators are machines.
All equipments are mobiles.
6. Conclusions:
I. No equipment is machine is a possibility.
II. Some machines which are mobiles are also a part of equipments.
7. Conclusions:
I. All equipments are calculators.
II. Some equipments are not calculators.
Directions : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
8. How is ‘never’ written in a code language?
I. ‘never ever go there’ is written as ‘na ja ni ho’ in that code language.
II. ‘go there and come back’ is written as ‘ma ho sa ni da’ in that code language.
9. Among M, P, K, J, T and W, who is lighter than only the heaviest?
I. P is heavier than M and T.
II. W is heavier than P but lighter than J who is not the heaviest.
10. What does ‘S’ mean in a code language?
I. ‘5 $ # 3’ means ‘flowers are really good’.
II. ‘7 # 3 5’ means ‘good flowers are available’.
11. How is P related to J?
I. M is brother of P and T is sister of P.
II. P’s mother is married to J’s husband who has one son and two daughters.
12. How many students are there between Suresh and Mohan in a row of fifty students?
I. Suresh is twelfth from the left end and Mohan is seventeenth from the right end.
II. Suresh is six places away from Jayesh who is twentieth from the left end.
ANSWERS
Solutions (1-7):
For (1-2):
1. (2)
2. (4)
For (3-4):
3. (1)
4. (4)
5. (1):
6. (1)
7. (4)
Solutions (8-12):
8. (4)
9. (5)
10. (5)
11. (5)
12. (1)
quiz-2
Directions : Read the following passage carefully and answers the questions given below it:
In a SAARC meeting eight delegates A, B C, D, E, F, G, and H of different countries are sitting around a square table facing the centre not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them is belongs to different countries India, Maldives, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Afghanistan, Nepal, Bangladesh and Bhutan.
F sits second to the right of the delegate of Sri Lanka. Bangladesh is an immediate neighbour of delegate of Sri Lanka. Two people sit between the delegate of Bangladesh and B. C and E are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither C nor E is an immediate neighbour of either B or delegate of Sri Lanka. The delegate of Pakistan sits second to the right of D, who is the delegate of Maldives. G and the delegate of India is immediate neighbour of each other. B is not the delegate of India. Only one person sits between C and D. H sits third to left of the delegate of Bhutan. The delegate of Nepal sits second to left of the delegate of Afghanistan.
1. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
(1) E is an immediate neighbour of the delegate of India
(2) E is the delegate of Maldives
(3) The delegate of India is an immediate neighbour of F
(4) The delegate of Bhutan sits between F and delegate of Nepal
(5) Shopkeeper sits second to the right of the teacher
2. H is the delegate of which country?
(1) India
(2) Pakistan
(3) Sri Lanka
(4) Afghanistan
(5) Bhutan
3. What is the position of delegate of Afghanistan with respect to delegate of Bangladesh?
(1) Immediately to the left
(2) Third to the left
(3) Second to the right
(4) Fourth to the left
(5) Second to the left
4. Who sit/s exactly between the delegate of Maldives and C?
(1) H
(2) Delegate of Pakistan
(3) Delegate of Nepal
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) F
5. What is the position of delegate of Pakistan when counted anti-clock wise direction from C?
(1) Immediately to the left
(2) Third to the left
(3) Second to the right
(4) Fourth to the left
(5) None of these
Directions (6-8): Read the following information and answer the given questions.
In the following question, a statement a statement is followed by two Assumption/ Course of Action I and II.
Give your answer as:
(1) If only I follow.
(2) If only II follows.
(3) If either I or II follows.
(4) If neither I nor II follows.
(5) If both I and II follows.
6. Statement: While presenting a stage show in a Saifai (Uttar Pradesh), the famous actor and actress declared that they have a practice of either taking full payment or none for their stage shows.
Assumptions:
I. They took full payment for their recent show.
II. They did not take any money for his recent show.
7. Statement: The Delhi court has directed the government to respond to a PIL alleging that politicians were misusing government’s funds worth crores in the name of sports on advertisement for their publicity.
Course of Action:
I. Government should respond to the PIL and ensure that this type of incident do not occurs in future.
II. Government should identify those politicians and must warn them not to do this again.
8. Statement: ‘We are here to announce that you are appointed as a Content Manager with a probation period of six months and your performance will be reviewed at the end of the period for confirmation’ – A line in an offer letter.
Assumptions:
I. The performance of an individual generally is not known at the time of joining.
II. Generally an individual tries to prove his worth in the probation period.
Directions (9-10): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
(i) A X B means “A is the father of B”
(ii) A + B means “B is the sister of A”
(iii) A – B means “B is the mother of A”
(iv) A ÷B means “A is the brother of B”
9. Which of the following means P is nephew of R?
(I) R x K ÷ P
(II) R – N + P – K
(III) R ÷ K x P + M
(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Only III
(4) Either II or III
(5) None of these
10. If it is given K x P ÷ R + S – Q. then which of the following is true?
(1) R is the brother of P
(2) K is the husband of S
(3) Q is the wife of K
(4) R is the sister of S
(5) None of these
Solutions (1-5)
1. (4)
2. (3)
3. (2)
4. (3)
5. (5)
Solutions (6-8):
6. (3) As given in the condition in the statement, the actor and actress either will take the full payment for his recent show or will not take any money for the same. Hence, either of the assumptions follows.
7. (5) Both Course of Actions follows.
8. (5) The performance of the individual has to be tasted over a span of time as the statement mentions. So I is implicit. The statement mentions that the individual’s worth shall be reviewed (during probation period) before confirmation so II is also implicit.
Solutions (9-10):
9. (5) Either 1 or 4
10. (3) Q is the wife of K
English Quizzes
Passage:
Directions (Q. 1-0): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below. There are certain words in the passage printed in bold letters to lead you to find them out easily in order to help you in answering some of the questions.
I worked as health secretary for about five years from the middle of 1962 to the middle of 1967. Thereafter I worked as finance secretary until the end of 1969. Indiscipline was rampant in the health department. Intense lobbying to secure plum postings was the order of the day. Ministers, legislators, senior officers and other influential people openly pleaded the cause of their proteges. The Health Minister was an honest, well-meaning politician. He approved my proposals to bring about some system and objectivity in postings and transfers and put an end to lobbying. But those efforts met with only limited success.
Doctors succeeded in getting desired postings by resorting to bribery. On the eve of the elections, the then minister sent down over 100 transfer orders from his camp office. They were in conflict with the guidelines and quite a few were confusing in as much as two doctors were posted to the same place, or one person was posted to more than one post. I did not carry out the orders. I submitted a note to Chief Minister through the Chief Secretary pointing out why the orders should not be implemented. The Chief Secretary supported me. The Chief Minister decided that the minister’s orders should not be implemented. All the doctors who had paid money were disappointed. In several other departments also corruption became widespread. In the works departments corruption had existed since a long time in the matter of awarding contracts. Now bribes were freely offered to secure transfer to particular posts, and even for getting promotions.
As Finance Secretary I found that the finances of the state were in a precarious condition. Financial discipline had evaporated. Long before the advent of the wireless and the telephone, the British had included in the Treasury Code a rule (Rule 27) empowering collectors to draw money from the treasury to meet emergencies like floods, earthquakes, devastating fires, etc. To my dismay I found that collectors were freely drawing money for all manner of trivial purposes under Rule 27 of the Treasury Code. In one case a collector had drawn money under the rule to buy a staff car for the SDO of another district.
All checks and balances had disappeared. There was no accountability and any one could do what he pleased. Resorting to a number of harsh measures I could restore a measure of financial discipline. But the administration continued to be in disarray.
1. How many years did the author work as health secretary?
1) He worked as health secretary until the end of 1969.
2) He worked as health secretary before he took over as finance secretary.
3) He worked as health secretary till the health minister was found to be a man of integrity.
4) He worked as health secretary for about five years.
5) He did not work as health secretary at all.
2. According to the author what was the order of the day ?
1) Strict discipline
2) Cut throat competition
3) Racial discrimination
4) Intense lobbying
5) None of these
3. How did the doctors succeed in getting desired postings?
1) Through dedicated service
2) By working in the health minister’s constituency
3) By joining hands with the underworld criminals
4) By resorting to sycophancy
5) By resorting to bribery
4. When the health minister sent down 100 transfer orders from his camp office, how did the author react?
(A) He immediately obeyed the minister.
(B) He did not carry out the orders .
(C) He submitted a note to Chief Minister through the Chief Secretary.
1) Only (A)
2) Only (B)
3) Only (A) & (B)
4) Only (B) & (C)
5) Only (A) & (C)
5. What happened when the Chief Minister decided that the minister’s orders should not be implemented?
1) The author was very happy.
2) The author arranged a tea party to celebrate his victory.
3) The doctors resigned and left the hospitals.
4) The health minister submitted his resignation.
5) All the doctors who had paid money were disappointed.
Directions (Q. 6-10): Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage.
6. Intense
1) Active
2) Vigorous
3) Feeble
4) Inferior
5) Devise
7. Success
1) Defeat
2) Succeed
3) Abrupt
4) Failure
5) Difficult
8. Conflict
1) Conformity
2) Disagreement
3) Attest
4) Combat
5) Manifest
Directions (Q. 9-10): Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage.
9. Supported
1) Advocated
2) Betrayed
3) Helped
4) Abandoned
5) Proposed
10. Promotion
1) Premonition
2) Facilitate
3) Elevation
4) Obstruction
5) Encourage
Answers:
1. 4
2. 4
3. 5
4. 4
5. 5
6. 3
7. 4
8. 1
9. 3
10. 3
close test
Directions(1-10): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
In economics, the term recession generally describes the reduction of a country’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) for at least two quarters. A recession is ...(1)... by rising unemployment, increase in government borrowing, ...(2)..., of share and stock prices, and falling investment. All of these characteristics have effects on people. Some recessions have been anticipated by stock market declines. The real – estate market also usually ...(3)... before a recession. During an economic decline, high ...(4)... stocks such as financial services, pharmaceuticals and tobacco ...(5)... to hold up better. However, when the economy starts to recover growth, stocks tend to recover faster. There is significant disagreement about how health care and utilities tend to ...(6)...
In 2008, an economic recession was suggested by several important indicators of economic downturn. These ...(7)... high oil prices, which led to ...(8)... high food prices due to a dependence of food production on petroleum, as well as using food crop products such as ethanol and biodiesel as an ...(9)... to petroleum; and global inflation; a substantial credit crisis investment blanks as well ...(10)... as commercial banks in various, and signs of contemporaneous economic downturns in major economics of the world, a global recession.
1.
(1) imagined
(2)depict
(3) shown
(4) visualized
(5) characterized
2.
(1) Increase
(2) variance
(3) more
(4) decrease
(5) abundance
3.
(1) weakens
(2) intiates
(3) awakens
(4) strengthens
(5) volatile
4.
(1) maintained
(2) yield
(3) heavy
(4) result
(5) payment
5.
(1) are
(2) want
(3)tend
(4) yearn
(5) made
6.
(1) distribute
(2) recover
(3) wait
(4) increased
(5) fight
7.
(1) meant
(2) show
(3) numbered
(4) included
(5) encompass
8.
(1) fearful
(2) dangerous
(3) abnormally
(4) healthy
(5) nutritious
9.
(1) alternative
(2) variant
(3) substitute
(4) element
(5) integral
10.
(1) wealthy
(2) costly
(3) stand
(4) created
(5) established
ANSWERS -
1. 5
2. 4
3. 1
4. 2
5. 3
6. 2
7. 4
8. 3
9. 1
10. 5
English Quiz -1
Directions (Q. 1-5) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error; the answer is (5), i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
1. He submitted (1)/ the request for compensation (2)/ of time but (3)/ it was denied./ (4) No Error (5).
2. Unfortunately today many (1)/ parents cannot afford (2)/ to send its (3)/ children to school./ (4) No Error (5).
3. He was convinced (1)/ that he (2)/ loss the account (3)/ because of bad luck./ (4) No Error (5).
4. Many customers have (1)/ complained because (2)/ his goods was (3)/ inferior in quality./ (4) No Error (5).
5. In his opinion (1)/ every senior citizens (2)/ will benefit (3)/ from the new rule./ (4) No Error (5).
Directions (Q. 6 -10): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark 5) i.e. ‘No correction required’ as the answer.
6. India has many laws for regulating to use of land in urban areas.
1) regulated for using
2) to regulate the use
3) are regulating the use
4) for regulating used
5) No correction required
7. Mr Gates is a successful entrepreneur donated most of his wealth to charity.
1) has donated most of
2) donated mostly
3) who has donated most of
4) donates much of
5) No correction required
8. We are unwilling to make any concession to their demands.
1) not willing to take
2) willingly given
3) not willing in giving
4) unwilling to take
5) No correction required
9. Sudha was determined to get a better job, in pursuing higher studies.
1) by pursuing higher
2) in the pursuit of high
3) pursuing higher
4) to pursuit higher
5) No correction required
10. The surface of the road has got severe damage during the heavy rains last week.
1) getting severely damaged
2) is been damaged severely
3) has severe damage
4) was severely damaged
5) No correction required
Answers:
1. 3
Replace ‘of’ with ‘for’.
2. 3
Replace ‘its’ with ‘their’.
3. 3
Replace ‘loss’ with ‘had lost’.
4. 3
Replace ‘his’ with ‘their’ and ‘was’ with ‘were’.
5. 2
Replace ‘citizens’ with ‘citizen’.
6. 2
7. 3
8. 5
9. 1
10. 4
English Quiz-2
Directions: In question nos. 1-5, some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. If there is no error, give ans (D).
1. Relaxation techniques such as meditation, physical exercises, (A) and listening to soothing music are some of the (B) most effective of the known non-invasive stress buster. (C) No error (D)
2. Salman Rushdie's 'Joseph Anton' is (A)one book by Mr Rushdie I (B) intend to read cover from cover. (C) No error (D)
3. Rakesh had the presence of mind (A) to get out of the way as the bus speeded out (B) of control past them. (C) No error (D)
4. Beginning in 2005, India and China had agreed to (A) identify "guiding principles and parameters" for (B) a political solution to the five-decade-old dispute. (C) No error (D)
5. The chairman and members of the (A) Public Service Commission is appointed (B) by the President or the Governor(C) No error (D.
Directions: In questions nos. 6-10, out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in your Answer Sheet.
6. Dubious
(A) questionable
(B) drop out
(C) duteous
(D) ebullient
7. Rogue
(A) sanguine
(B) tutelage
(C) scoundrel
(D) squire
8. Covert
(A) demure
(B) disguised
(C) dilated
(D) zealot
9. Tow
(A) vivify
(B) mane
(C) decorate
(D) pull
10. Lax
(A) slack
(B) strength
(C) soap
(D) comfortableAnswer:
1.C Replace buster with busters.
2.C Replace from with to.
3.B Replace speeded with speed.
4.A Replace beginning with early.
5.B Replace is with are.
6.A
7.C
8.B
9.D
10.A
English Quiz-3
Directions (1to 10): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
1. Malapropism
(1) atrocity
(2) catachresis
(3) provincialism
(4) solecism
(5) kindness
2. Factitious
(1) artifical
(2) genuine
(3) bogus
(4) ersatz
(5) phony
3. Maladroit
(1) clumsy
(2) gauche
(3) capable
(4) inept
(5) lumbering
4. Quip
(1) witty remark
(2) gibe
(3) satire
(4) riposte
(5) flattery
5. Unprepossessing
(1) unremarkable
(2) pleasing
(3) horrid
(4) grisly
(5) hideous
6. Glean
(1) collect
(2) amass
(3) winnow
(4) dissipate
(5) reap
7. Redress
(1) Correct Unfeirness
(2) Vengeance
(3) aid
(4) damage
(5) cure
8. Facetious
(1) humorous
(2) funny
(3) punning
(4) sportive
(5) serious
9. Behoove
(1) befit
(2) beseem
(3) compel
(4) lacked
(5) be one's duty
10. Goad
(1) impulse
(2) urge
(3) zeal
(4) pressure
(5) disgust
Answers:
1.5
2.2
3.3
4.5
5.2
6.4
7.4
8.5
9.5
10.5
1.5
2.2
3.3
4.5
5.2
6.4
7.4
8.5
9.5
10.5
Computer Quiz-1
In addition to keying data directly into a database, data entry can be done from a(n)
1) input form
2) table
3) field
4) data dictionary
5) None of these
2. What is an e-mail attachment?
1) A receipt sent by the recipient
2) A separate document from another program sent along with an e-mail message
3) A malicious parasite that feeds off your messages and destroys the contents
4) A list of CC or BCC recipients
5) None of these
3. SMTP, FTP and DNS are applications of the ____ layer.
1) data link
2) network
3) transport
4) application
5) None of these
4. In a database, information should be organised and accessed according to which of the following?
1) Physical position
2) Logical structure
3) Data dictionary
4) Physical structure
5) None of these
5. A _______ is a computer connected to two networks.
1) link
2) server
3) gateway
4) bridge way
5) None of these
6. A file extension is separated from the main file name with a(n) _______, but no spaces.
1) question mark
2) exclamation mark
3) underscore
4) period
5) None of these
7. A telephone number, a birth date, and a customer name are all examples of
1) a record
2) data
3) a file
4) a database
5) None of these
8. The term _______ designates equipment that might be added to a computer system to enhance its functionality.
1) digital device
2) system add-on
3) disk pack
4) peripheral device
5) None of these
9. Which key is used in combination with another key to perform a specific task?
1) Function
2) Control
3) Arrow
4) Space bar
5) None of these
10. The real business and competitive value of information technology lies in
1) The software applications that are used by many companies
2) The capabilities of the software and value of the information, a business acquires and uses
3) The infrastructure of hardware, networks, and other IT facilities that are commonly used by many companies
4) The capabilities of the hardware and the speed at which it processes information
5) None of these
11. OCR stands for _____
(1) Optical Character Recognition
(2) Optical CPU Recognition
(3) Optimal Character Rendering
(4) Other Character Restoration
(5) None of these
12. If a new device is attached to a computer, such as a printer or scanner, its ______ must be installed before the device can be used.
1) buffer
2) driver
3) pager
4) server
5) None of these
13. The software that allows users to surf the Internet is called a/an
(1) Search engine
(2) Internet Service Provider (ISP)
(3) Multimedia application
(4) Browser
(5) None of these
14. A tuple is a
1) column of a table
2) two-dimensional table
3) row of a table
4) key of a table
5) None of these
15. The method of file organization in which data records in a file are arranged in a specified order according to a key field is known as the
1) Direct access method
2) Queuing method
3) Predetermined method
4) Sequential access method
5) None of these
16. In Excel,_____ contains one or more worksheets.
1) Template
2) Workbook
3) Active cell
4) Label
5) None of these
17. Which of the following is a popular programming language for developing multimedia web pages, websites, and web-based applications?
1) COBOL
2) Java
3) BASIC
4) Assembler
5) None of these
18. Compiling creates a(n) _____ .
1) program specification
2) algorithm
3) executable program
4) subroutine
5) None of these
19. A CD-RW disk
(1) has a faster access than an internal disk
(2) is a form of optical disk, so it can only be written once
(3) holds less data than a floppy disk
(4) can be erased and rewritten
(5) None of these
20. The first page of a Web site is called the
1) Home page
2) Index
3) Java Script
4) Book mark
5) None of these
Answers:
1
|
1
|
11
|
1
|
2
|
2
|
12
|
2
|
3
|
4
|
13
|
4
|
4
|
2
|
14
|
3
|
5
|
4
|
15
|
4
|
6
|
4
|
16
|
2
|
7
|
1
|
17
|
2
|
8
|
4
|
18
|
3
|
9
|
2
|
19
|
4
|
10
|
2
|
20
|
1
|
computer Quiz-2
1. Full form of TCP is:
(1) Transmission Control Protocol
(2) Total Control Protocol
(3) Transmission Control Program
(4) Totaling Control Program
(5) None of these
2. __ provides a common address space and routes the packets of data across the entire internet?
(1) IP
(2) TCP
(3) UDP
(4) ALU
(5) None of these
3. Cyberspace is being governed by a system of law and regulation called?
(1) Civil Law
(2) Criminal Law
(3) Electronic Law
(4) Cyber Law
(5) Cyber Authority
4. To move to the beginning of a line of text, press __key?
(1) Home
(2) Ctrl
(3) Space
(4) Enter
(5) None of these
5. What menu is selected to change the font and style?
(1) Tools
(2) File
(3) Format
(4) Edit
(5) None of these
6. The process of starting the computer and loading of operating system programs for execution is known as
(1) initialization
(2) retrieving
(3) loading
(4) searching
(5) booting
7. Primary memory is used by the:
(1) user
(2) input device
(3) CPU
(4) all of these
(5) None of these
8. In a disk, each block of data is written into -
(1) one sector
(2) three sector
(3) Two sectors
(4) Two or more sectors
(5) either two or three sectors:
9. The Pentium processor contains-
(1) tens of thousands of transistors
(2) hundred thousands of transistors
(3) thousands of transistors
(4) several millions of transistors
(5) hundred transistors
10. __ was the precursor to internet as we know it today?
(1) ARPANET
(2) USENET
(3) TELNET
(4) DBMS
(5) None of these
11. Which of the following is not an operating system?
(1) DOS
(2) Oracle
(3) Linux
(4) Windows
(5) None of these
12. In word, what combination of keys do you press to delete an entire word?
(1) Ctrl + del
(2) Alt + del
(3) Shift + Backspace
(4) Shift + Alt + del
(5) None of these
13. Hardware that adds two numbers is:
(1) the control unit
(2) an internal CPU register
(3) arithmetic Logic Unit
(4) Browser
(5) None of these
14. A small amount of memory included in the processor for high speed access id called-
(1) Register
(2) Cache
(3) RAM
(4) ROM
(5) None of these
15. A byte represents a group of:
(1) 10 bits (2) 40 bits
(3) 16 bits (4) 18 bits
(5) 8 bits
Answers:
1
|
1
|
6
|
5
|
11
|
2
|
2
|
1
|
7
|
3
|
12
|
5
|
3
|
2
|
8
|
4
|
13
|
3
|
4
|
1
|
9
|
4
|
14
|
2
|
5
|
3
|
10
|
1
|
15
|
5
|
SSC #IBPS #SBI #RBI #NABARD #NICL #NIACL #CAT #NMAT #everydayquiz
Thanku for start again .....📑📒📒📒📓📑📑📘📙📗📖📖📖📖📕📖📖📖📖
ReplyDeletethanq sir
ReplyDeletethnku sir
ReplyDeletesir e exam time la k solve krna ??? if yes thn how ???
ReplyDeleteHow to solve question no 6???
ReplyDelete